by Marja » Mon Jul 28, 2008 1:33 am
Well, Proudhon's What is Property adopts a very narrow def. of possession, and a much wider def. of property. Proudhon's actual position, in General Idea of the Revolution, the translated sections of Theory of Property, etc. was to counterpose occupancy/use property to absentee property. Ingalls' and Tucker's position was identical. They all used the term property to describe occupancy and use.
The common interpretation in the early 2000s was that possession referred to occupancy and use, while property referred to both actually-enforced property, and ancap and agorist models. For example, An anarchist FAQ consistently equates the Proudhon and Ingalls-Tucker positions with possession, not property.
However, this created as many definitional problems as it solved.
Possession, in the recent sense, and property, in the agorist models, have certain similarities, e.g.:
1. They are generally the possessions or property of those who create and use them. Either creating them, occupying them, or using them can justify one's claim, and the combination can more securely justify the claim.
2. They can be claimed by individuals or groups.
3. They are supposed to protect personal privacy and economic autonomy.
4. They are supposed to clarify which economic decisions are personal, which ones are group-based, and who can claim involvement (or damages).
5. They can be gifted or traded.
6. They can be abandoned.
7. If they are stolen, the prior possessor/owner does not lose her claim, and the thief does not gain one. (Contra Reissman, it is not considered an interruption in possession).
The big distinction is bullcrap because so many anarchists have emphasized both occupancy/use and creation as standards of legitimacy, often in the same passages. If we obsess on this shibboleth, we have to dismiss Proudhon and Bakunin as "propertarians."
The silver moon is set;
The Pleiades are gone;
Half the long night is spent, and yet
I lie alone.
-- Sappho