Francois Tremblay wrote:It is very easy to prove that Anarchists who use violence are in fact not Anarchists, by virtue of simple logic.
One of the definitions of the State is a mode of operation by which violence committed by its own agents is labeled as legitimate, and violence committed by anyone else is labeled illegitimate.
An Anarchist who uses violence presumably believes that:
1. The State's own violence is not legitimate.
2. That his own use of violence is legitimate.
But this places him squarely as an ideological statist. Therefore it is logically impossible for an Anarchist to remain an Anarchist if he uses violence and believes in violence.
With respect, this reasoning fails utterly.
Not all anarchists are pacifists. The key question to address in determining whether or not a given act of violence (or threat thereof, or fraud) is legitimate is to examine whether that act was or was not
initiatory violence. Initiatory violence is condemned, while other violence might be acceptable. If Smith points a gun at Jones and demands Jones's money, Jones may be justified in using violence in retaliation to defend his person and his property. Likewise, Jones may be justified in chasing down Smith later on and using violence to compel him to surrender what was stolen from him. There are pacifist anarchists who would condemn Jones's act of violence in any case, be it retaliatory or retributive, and I and many others would not class ourselves among them.
The state and statism don't even enter into the ethical calculus thus far. The legitimacy of Jones's violence is a moral question that can be examined even in the absence of states.
There are many anarchists, I believe, who justify the use of violence in certain circumstances.
The psychopathic Stirnerite egoist might say that his initiation violence is an expression of his inviolable will, and therefore legitimate. The psychopathic Randroid might say that his initiation of violence is an expression of the noble qualities of Man. The nihilist might just want to blow things up for the sake of causing chaos. All of these should be condemned, as they violate the principle I outlined above. Even so, holding even these extreme beliefs would not make them cease to be anarchists or become statists. They would still be ordinary criminals if they followed through on their intent.
Yet different anarchists may commit acts of violence against the agents or property
of the state, rationalizing it to be consistent with the non-aggression principle since it can be seen as retaliatory or retributive.
As a simple example, imagine an isolated population in a small farming village in the middle ages. One day a gang of armed men march into your village demanding the village pay tribute to some far-away king the villagers have never heard of, and are ready to put to the sword any person who resists or fails to pay. Having well mugged the villagers and deprived them of their property, the thugs march away, only to be ambushed by an advance party of villagers on the road. Are those villagers justified in using violence to reclaim what was stolen from them? I say yes. Are they further justified in marching to the imperial capital and demanding the king's head? Again I say yes!
Of course, extending this argument to acts of violence against the state in the present context is a tricky proposition, and even more so to violent acts against, for example, Macy's shop windows, as were under discussion recently in other places.
A bit more of my own view on the subject can be found
here